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goi (was: "ko" considered bad)
- To: John Cowan <cowan@LOCKE.CCIL.ORG>
- Subject: goi (was: "ko" considered bad)
- From: Cyril Slobin <slobin@FEAST.FE.MSK.RU>
- Date: Mon, 16 Oct 1995 17:42:28 +0300
- In-Reply-To: <199510131913.WAA10105@feast.fe.msk.ru>; from "Logical Language G." at Fri, 13 Oct 1995 14:38:43 -0400
- Organization: Institute for Commercial Engineering
- Reply-To: Cyril Slobin <slobin@FEAST.FE.MSK.RU>
- Sender: Lojban list <LOJBAN@CUVMB.BITNET>
coi
> Though I think I would be more inclined to use "ko goi mi'o" since we are
> redefining rather than restrictively identifying ko.
I have one related question here: {goi} is defined as being symmetical.
It gives us additional freedom when we have pro-sumti on one side and some
well-defined sumti on other. But the case with two pro-sumti seems obscure:
{... ko'a goi la djan. ...} - {ko'a} becomes {la djan.}
{... la meris. goi ko'e ...} - {ko'e} becomes {la meris.}
{... ko'i goi ko'a ...} - {ko'i} becomes {la djan.} too, at least
unless it is already defined. BTW, what
pro-* do you use for english "it" in my
prevous sentence?
{... ko'a goi ko'e ...} - {ko'a} becomes {la meris.} or {ko'e}
becomes {la djan.} ???
In your example {ko goi mi'o} we think that {mi'o} is usually defined better
than {ko}, but what is general rule?
And another question: does some way to set vocative scope? Something like:
"John, go to market and buy (Mary, don't cry!) some food!"
co'o mi'e kir.
--
Cyril Slobin <slobin@fe.msk.ru> `When I use a word,' Humpty Dumpty said,
<http://www.fe.msk.ru/~slobin/> `it means just what I choose it to mean'