Re: SE & FA

[ucleaar <ucleaar@ucl.ac.uk>]

> >I am I right in these translations?
> >   se mamta fa mi  "I am a mother"
> >   selmamta fa mi  "I have a mother"
> >
> >---
> >And
>
> No.  "fa" manipulation is conseidered totally metalinguistic.  You MUST
> physically rearrange the pieces to know what is meant.  I think this
> even overrides scope issues, though I am not sure we addressed the issue.
> (Thus  "broda de fa roda" would mean the same as "roda broda de").  I don't
> feel real strooong on scope interaction and "FA" if you-all who like to
> use it want scope to be spoken order dependent.  I am more concerned with
> SE conversion.

I was very much hoping the answer to my question would be Yes.
What I am specifically wondering about is whether "fa" accesses x1
of the selbri without SE, or with SE. Bob Chassell's reply on this
question says fa picks up the x1 after Se conversion (i.e. the ur-x2
in my example).

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And